T-6 Propulsion, Instruments, and Training (PIT) Systems Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• When the EHYD PX LO annunciator illuminates, it indicates that emergency accumulator hydraulic pressure is below which threshold?
• What occurs when the TRIM AID switch is turned off?
• What is a common cause of uncommanded power loss?
• What happens when the air temperature in the duct exceeds safe levels?
• What causes the speed brake to retract?
• Generator power is controlled by which switch located on the right forward switch panel in each cockpit?
• What is the primary purpose of the VSI?
• What happens if a component or circuit malfunctions in the T-6?
• The oil system provides filtered oil to all of the following systems, EXCEPT:
• Where does the pressure come from that creates the mechanical force to extend the speed brake?
• After closing the canopy, how can you ensure it is properly locked?
• What does the HYDR FL LO annunciator indicate?
• What is the default page displayed on the GPS?
• To which pumps does the motive flow line route fuel?
• Why is the PMU crucial for engine operation?
• Which component provides a near-linear power response in the T-6?
• Which switch ties together the generator and battery buses?
• What is the purpose of the inertial separator in the engine?
• Which flight control electromechanical trim system utilizes movement of the actual primary control surface?
• How long can the OBOGS provide oxygen during flight?
• On which bus is external power distributed?
• What does the emergency package's manifold contain?
• What controls battery power in the T-6 cockpit?
• How can you determine if the ADC has failed or its data is invalid?
• While in flight, cool air from the _____ passes through the heat exchanger, drawing heat from the bleed air.
• How many VHF NAV presets can the RMU store?
• What safety feature is activated when a circuit breaker pops?
• What does the white triangle at 4.9 units on the AOA gauge indicate?
• What is the reason for disconnecting from the aircraft oxygen system during an OBOGS inop situation?
• What happens during the deployment phase of the SSK?
• What electrical component allows isolation of the generator and battery buses?
• What is the function of the drogue chute?
• Do friction control settings made to the front PCL affect the aft PCL?
• Use the _____ to control the VHF NAV volume.
• What type of information is provided by the EFIS in an unusual attitude scenario?
• What display shows cockpit pressure altitude and differential pressure?
• If the flap indicator fails, how can flap extension be confirmed?
• What feature indicates the position of the trim on the aircraft?
• True or False: The entire T-6A canopy is protected against birdstrikes.
• Which component is used for inputting frequency changes in the RMU?
• What is the delay between seat ejections during the ejection process?
• What is the maximum surface wind speed limit for safely opening the canopy?
• Which of the following is NOT a function of the EDM?
• What indicates a properly functioning fire warning system during testing?
• What indication shows that a pilot is using maximum range on the AOA gauge?
• Visual indication of pitch, roll, and yaw trim can be found on the _____.
• What information does the NAV 2 page display?
• Does the AEDD serve as a backup to the PEDD by displaying some of the same data?
• What condition must be met for the landing light to activate?
• Which switch controls the position of the fresh air valve?
• Which of the following is NOT included in the rudder control system?
• What is the final step to ensure the canopy is properly latched?
• Which fuel pump is used after engine start in the collector tank?
• Who controls all IDARS functions in the T-6 aircraft?
• What is the purpose of the white position lights on the T-6?
• What indicates that a nearby aircraft is showing as proximity traffic on the display?
• Which function does the PMU NOT perform?
• Which valve maintains fuel balance by shutting off fuel flow to the light wing tank?
• Are the compressor and power turbines physically connected in the T-6 engine?
• What indication on the RMU suggests a possible transponder failure?
• Where is the switch labeled AUX BAT located?
• What is the main purpose of hydraulic pressure in the landing gear system?
• In the case of ASI data failure, which system should be referenced to diagnose the issue?
• What is the name of the line through which fuel is routed from the engine-driven low pressure fuel pump to the primary jet pump?
• What is the role of the SSK in the ejection seat sequence?
• What action should you take if crew chief assistance is needed to close and lock the canopy?
• How does the propeller pitch change mechanism adjust the blade angle?
• Where is the PMU located in the T-6 aircraft?
• How many knots above stall speed is the stick shaker activated?
• When is the interphone system activated in COLD mode?
• What happens when the EHSI is in HSI normal mode and the MAP button is pressed?
• What does the acronym FEVER stand for in engine monitoring?
• Which hydraulic pressure is considered normal for the engine-driven pump?
• On the ground, which switch activates the fresh air blower?
• Is the MANUAL starter switch position used under normal circumstances?
• During aerobatic flight, what should the oil pressure be maintained at or above?
• What is the primary function of the emergency landing gear extension handle?
• The emergency package receives its pressure from which source?
• Where does the engine-driven air conditioner compressor pump refrigerant in vapor form?
• Is all data presented on the AEDD processed by the PMU?
• The RMU stores up to ____ VHF communication frequencies in preset memory channels.
• How are heading and course set on the EHSI?
• Heading and course adjustments on the EHSI are made through which component?
• True or False: Single-point refueling fills all three tanks sequentially starting with the collector tank.
• When does the pressurization system close the fresh air valve?
• What role does the battery switch play in T-6 operations?
• Why should you avoid ejecting if the canopy is obviously unlocked?
• Where is the EDM located in the aircraft?
• Rudder pedal position is adjusted with a hand crank located on the ______.
• When are the landing and taxi lights activated by the LDG and TAXI switches?
• In what format is the altimeter's baro-set data presented?
• Which mode is essential for the functioning of the DME in aircraft navigation?
• The electronic instrument displays (EID) receive sensor data from which component?
• On the EHSI, what does the course deviation bar indicate?
• What is indicated by the CP flag on the EHSI?
• What type of air does the ECS panel manage for both heating and defogging purposes?
• What colors are the navigation lights at the leading edge wingtips?
• What type of data would typically be displayed on the EADI during approach mode?
• True or False: The air conditioning works with the generator off.
• What initiates the CFS during the ejection sequence?
• In addition to the TRIM OFF annunciator, actuating the trim interrupt button will also illuminate the ______ annunciator light.
• How can you identify a no start condition?
• What indication does the RMU provide when UHF GUARD is activated?
• What component ensures the nosewheel is properly aligned before it is retracted or extended?
• When does the stick shaker activate in relation to stall speed?
• What happens when the standby instruments are powered by the auxiliary battery?
• When starting the T-6A, the PCL should be:
• What is indicated when the standby attitude indicator shows an incorrect reading?
• Which system improvement does disconnecting from the aircraft oxygen system achieve?
• Which switch controls the flow of fresh air to the cockpit during ground operations and unpressurized flight?
• How long does it take to refuel the T-6A using the single point pressure method?
• To select a specific waypoint from the database, which method can you use?
• How are the standby instruments powered?
• The symbol next to the identifier flashes approximately ______ prior to reaching a direct to waypoint.
• When is the canopy pressure seal inflated?
• A red light illuminated in the landing gear selector handle indicates that the PCL is approaching IDLE, with the gear handle up, and which of the following?
• What is the maximum fuel quantity for one wing tank using the primary refueling method?
• How is control of battery power transferable between cockpits?
• What is the primary function of the PIU?
• What should be monitored when using the hydraulic systems on the aircraft?
• In the reduction gearbox, what is the output propeller speed?
• To perform a count up with the digital clock, the function indicator must be over which label?
• Which type of data does the ESD not display in the cockpit?
• What advantage does using flaps in the landing setting provide?
• Which circuit breakers control front and rear cockpit avionics buses located on the front cockpit?
• The pressurization system overrides the RAM AIR FLOW switch and closes the fresh air valve when the aircraft reaches approximately ______ MSL.
• How many airport pages are there for every airport in the database?
• What does propeller pitch refer to?
• What type of pressure should you expect when the CKPT ALT light is illuminated?
• What voltage does the generator in the T-6 provide?
• True or False: The auxiliary battery activates automatically upon failure of the primary battery.
• Standby instruments are generally powered by which source?
• What are the two main functions of the speed brake?
• From where does the ASI receive its data?
• In response to the CKPT ALT annunciator, what procedure should you perform?
• What is the VSI's maximum indication of climb or descent rate?
• Which component provides power in the T-6 aircraft?
• How many pounds of fuel load does the auto balance system maintain between wing tanks?
• How does the emergency hydraulic system function normally?
• What happens to the propeller pitch if oil pressure is lost?
• In a failed primary hydraulic system scenario, which system might still be functional?
• When is emergency oxygen automatically activated in the T-6?
• After loss of all electrical power, how long will the standby attitude indicator provide pitch and roll information?
• How many seconds of fuel does the flip-flop valve in the collector tank provide?
• Where are the VOR antennae located on the T-6A?
• Your engine began experiencing an uncommanded rollback. What should be suspected?
• How does an aircraft transponder respond to an interrogator's query?
• What is the function of the TAD system in relation to the pilot's control inputs?
• The air conditioning system operates when which components are active?
• How many additional ATC codes are stored in the RMU?
• What indicates a hot start?
• What causes the CKPT PX light to illuminate?
• Why is it recommended to eject from an aircraft in a level flight attitude?
• What unit of measurement does the upper green chevron indicate on the AOA indexer?
• What controls the battery from either cockpit in the T-6?
• Which of the following is NOT a part of the aileron control system?
• What action does the emergency hydraulic control allow during power loss?
• What does the DMEH special function switch do?
• What is the purpose of the pressure release valve in the emergency hydraulic system?
• Under what condition will the FUEL BAL annunciator illuminate?
• Before extending the landing gear, it is essential to:
• What should be the first thing checked when an avionics failure is suspected?
• If oil pressure remains between 15 and 40 psi at IDLE power for over 5 seconds, which annunciators will illuminate?
• At what cockpit altitude does the CKPT ALT light typically activate?
• What are the indications of PMU failure?
• How many UHF or VHF communication frequencies can the RMU memory store?
• Where is the taxi light located on the aircraft?
• What voltage do the battery and auxiliary battery units provide?
• What is the maximum capacity of the collector tank for fuel?
• True or False: The NWS system is separate from the selector manifold.
• Which method has a tighter turn radius?
• What supplies power for aircraft avionics?
• The primary aircraft flight controls consist of the ______.
• During a loss of engine power, what can the emergency package allow for a one-time extension?
• How is the DME slant range calculated?
• What are indications of abnormal primary flight control operations?
• What do the bearing pointer select buttons on the EHSI cycle through?
• What replaces the latitude and longitude in the nearest waypoint display?
• What is the recommended action when indications of an abnormal start are present?
• The EHSI displays a rotating compass scale divided into what increments?
• The TAD computes input to the rudder trim system based on which parameters?
• Where are the anti-collision strobe lights located on the T-6A?
• What is the T-6 pressurization schedule at ambient surface to 8,000 feet?
• A cockpit pressure altitude differential of 3.6 psi is normally reached at what altitude?
• What is the operational purpose of the fresh air blower switch?
• Press the right CRSR button to add _____ elements to the Super NAV 5 map.
• Which component is primarily responsible for the T-6A's cockpit pressurization?
• What indicates that the PMU needs maintenance after landing?
• What is the primary purpose of the ignition system?
• During what condition is the emergency oxygen system triggered?
• What is the primary method of refueling the T-6A?
• How is the T-6A ejection seat propelled?
• What parameters does the PEDD provide?
• How is external power controlled in the T-6?
• Which symptom suggests uncommanded propeller feathering?
• At what speed does the Mach number window on the ASI become inactive?
• What does the OBOGS FAIL annunciator indicate?
• What component is responsible for sending pressure to the main wheel brakes?
• What occurs when a field select key is pressed on the RMU?
• What must be activated for the landing light to function properly?
• What is the secondary or backup refueling method called for the T-6A?
• During negative-G flight, the flip-flop valve provides the engine access to which fuel source?
• When the power package slide valve closes, what is prevented from energizing any hydraulic components?
• Where are pilot warning tones generated and routed to?
• Which refueling method fills the wing tanks simultaneously?
• What happens when the bypass switch is placed in the ALTN position for the UHF radio?
• What might indicate a rapid decay of N1 during flight?
• What occurs if you underestimate the importance of the centering valve during aircraft operations?
• What condition must be met for the pneumatic canopy pressure seal to inflate?
• Which statement about the waypoint symbol flashing is accurate?
• During normal operation, what should you expect from the PMU?
• If the EHSI course indication cannot be changed, what indication might confirm this issue?
• What likely occurs when the aircraft transitions from a high to low pressure environment?
• What control surfaces are locked when the gust lock is engaged?
• What is the function of the flight time (FT) display in this aircraft?
• What component is used to adjust light output from instruments and displays in the cockpit?
• How long does the emergency oxygen bottle supply oxygen when activated?
• What should be done if the ejection seat is malfunctioning?
• What does a 'D' following the identifier on a VOR page indicate?
• True or False: The weight of fuel in the collector tank is included in the total fuel weight on the AEDD.
• The ILS localizer and glideslope signals are received and processed through the same antennas and receiver as the ______ system.
• What is the consequence of a malfunctioning ignition system?
• During normal operation with the bus tie closed, which electrical buses are powered by the generator?
• The starter/generator is regulated and monitored by which component located under a panel in the aft cockpit?
• When the CKPT ALT light is illuminated, what delta P is expected?
• The Super Nav 5 AUTO range mode automatically selects what?
• When discussing the AOA gauge, what is indicated at 0 AOA?
• True or False: Placing the vent control lever in the CANOPY position opens the defog valve.
• What element of the primary hydraulic system activates the corresponding actuator when lowering the flaps?
• The TAD maintains a takeoff trim setting until what airspeed in KIAS and no weight on wheels?
• What is the prohibited range for Np stabilized operation while on the ground to prevent ground resonance?
• What RPM does the reduction gearbox reduce engine output from?
• What function is NOT performed by the PMU?
• What system alerts you to overtemperature conditions in the heating/defog ducting?
• What is the purpose of the RAM AIR switch?
• The waypoint scan presents which of the following lists?
• True or False: The temperature control switch on the ECS panel controls the temperature of both heating and defogging air.
• What is one function of the PEDD?
• In case of a fault in the anti-collision lights, where will the COLL circuit breaker pop?
• The rudder control system is primarily responsible for what type of flight maneuvering?
• What is unaffected when the BLEED AIR inflow switch is turned OFF?
• How is the mechanical force to retract the speed brake achieved?
• Which system is activated during ejection to provide oxygen?
• You can adjust the heating system temperature between ______ and ______ F when in the AUTO range.
• What does the PIRD do during ejection?
• Which transponder mode provides altitude reporting to the secondary radar system?
• What valve is incorporated into the oxygen hose attachment fitting to allow breathing ambient air if the OBOGS fails?
• What information does the upper left corner of the EHSI show when selected?
• What is the primary function of the oxygen system in the T-6 aircraft?
• What is the primary purpose of the leg restraint system?
• What sound accompanies a flashing MASTER WARN light on the switchlight panel?
• How is the TAS altitude block selected?
• What is the primary function of the FIRE switch in the front cockpit?
• In addition to the DME slant range, which two pieces of information can the EHSI display when selected using the NAV button?
• Which is NOT one of the three main engine sections?
• Where is the chip detector sensor located?
• What is the maximum number of UHF frequencies that can be stored in the RMU memory?
• If cockpit pressure differential exceeds 4.0 psi, what does the safety valve do?
• True or False: The T-6A air conditioning system is electrically operated and available when electrical power is applied to the aircraft.
• What component helps maintain the aircraft's stability while in flight?
• When the ejection seat sequencer is set to SOLO, which seat will eject first?
• Why does the CFS use FLSC on the front transparency?
• What is interconnected with the elevator trim tab actuator to automatically input pitch trim?
• What happens to DME display error as the altitude of the aircraft increases?
• What does the RMU do if a malfunction is detected during the preflight test?
• From which pump is the engine-driven high-pressure fuel pump fed?
• The 000 radial of a VOR station is oriented to which direction?
• What are the two interphone modes available?
• At what indicated fuel quantity do the left and right fuel quantity arrows on the AEDD turn yellow?
• How many VHF NAV presets can be stored using the RMU?
• What information does the EHSI display when tuned to a navigation facility with DME capability?
• How are the primary jet pump and transfer jet pumps operated?
• What does a higher number on the AOA gauge scale indicate?
• Which component is used to control the generator power in the T-6?
• How does the maximum operating airspeed (Vmo) change with altitude?
• If tank loads are out of balance, the auto balance system stops motive flow to which tank?
• The vent control lever directs air output to the ________ vents.
• What are the components of the standby instruments?
• Where does bleed air for the T-6A systems come from?
• Which function does the IDT button serve in relation to the transponder?
• How many seconds does the entire ejection process take for the rear cockpit below 14,000 feet?
• Where is the phase shift torque probe located?
• AEDD fuel quantity indications are derived from how many sensors in the fuel tanks?
• Which of the following components does the RMU not display?
• How is electrical power provided to operate the aileron and elevator trim system?
• When is differential braking particularly useful?
• What type of air does the blower in each cockpit evaporator module pull through the evaporator coils?
• What full circle range scales are available in NAV MAP mode on the EHSI?
• The power turbine is primarily driven by what?
• Which components provide the necessary pressure to the ADC?
• Which switch is crucial for managing the overall power supply to the avionics in the aircraft?
• Which instrument is typically not powered by the battery bus?
• The ILS ______ provides course guidance to the runway centerline.
• Where do maintenance personnel recharge the system refrigerant?
• At what reading on the AOA gauge does a stall occur?
• At what pressure altitude does the CKPT ALT annunciator light turn on?
• What is the maximum TAS range selection available in nautical miles?
• Which set of landing gear doors is operated hydraulically?
• What occurs when IDARS reaches approximately 80% fullness?
• How many cubic feet per minute of airflow does the evap blower produce in the HI setting?
• What triggers the CKPT ALT annunciator to light up?
• A circuit breaker labeled AFT BAT controls which component on the front cockpit battery bus circuit breaker panel?
• What does the barber pole on the airspeed indicator represent?
• Aural tones in the cockpit may indicate what type of issues?
• In COLD mode, when are the interphone microphones active?
• What oil pressure level at IDLE power will cause the red OIL PX annunciator to illuminate?
• Which component prevents fuel from draining from the wing tank?
• When does the pressure seal inflate in the aircraft?
• What type of device is the data transfer module?
• What drives the power turbine?
• How long does the entire ejection process take below 14,000 feet for the front cockpit?
• What is the ideal oil pressure range for PCL positions above IDLE during straight-and-level flight?
• What component is primarily responsible for regulating cockpit pressure in the T-6A?
• Which element is NOT necessary for T-6 engine operation?
• Which seat is ejected first during the ejection process?
• True or False: The AIR COND switch is available in both cockpits and is used to activate the air conditioner compressor.
• Which indication is associated with low oil pressure during flight?
• What type of distance does the DME system display from the ground station to the aircraft?
• If the oil filter gets clogged, what does the system use?
• How long will the standby attitude indicator supply accurate information after total electrical failure?
• What is true about the pilot’s requirement to activate the transponder in relation to an interrogation signal?
• What notification appears on the EADI in case of pitch or roll attitude failure?
• What initiates the movement of the seat during the ejection process?
• What alert will an amber light on the annunciator panel in each cockpit indicate?
• If the EHYD PX LO illuminates, which aircraft devices are likely inoperative?
• When is it appropriate to take a reading from the magnetic compass?
• What type of data does the portable memory cartridge store?
• What is the function of the trim disconnect switch?
• The rear cockpit avionics bus receives power through which component?
• What does the DUCT TEMP light indicate?
• What G force opens the anti-G valve during maneuvers?
• What is the primary purpose of the PIU?
• What is the purpose of the MEM special function switch on the RMU?
• The VOR signal is received through the _____ antennas mounted on each side of the _____
• What is an indication of excessive turbine temperature?
• The transponder transmits _____ when the mode is set to ON.
• Where is the GCU located in the cockpit?
• What does the red indication in the standby turn coordinator suggest?
• A primary purpose of the TAD system is to assist the pilot in maintaining ______.
• What does it mean when the Mach number becomes blank on the ASI?
• How long does it take to defuel the T-6A through the over the wing gravity refueling ports?
• What pressure is the hydraulic system pressurized to?
• How many preset channels can the UHF backup control unit allow for?
• If the primary hydraulic system fails, what happens to flap usage?
• What pressure range should the emergency oxygen system display during preflight?
• Does the UHF backup control unit activate automatically during an RMU failure?
• In HOT mode, which statement is true?
• Where do exhaust gases leave the power turbine?
• Which circuit control system is responsible for both the front and rear cockpit avionics?
• To achieve effective defogging, where should the vent control lever be positioned?
• True or False: Both UHF and VHF systems have dedicated Guard receivers.
• Before using the emergency system for flaps operation, what must be done first?
• How does the CFS (Canopy Fracture System) operate during an ejection?
• What should the RMU memory contain for VHF NAV?
• When should you cage the standby attitude indicator?
• During which condition is the ECS panel temperature control most critical?
• What mechanism is utilized to prevent smoke from entering the cockpit during an emergency?
• Where are battery bus circuit breakers located in the cockpit?
• What warning indicators might light up during an engine failure?
• The range scale on the NAV 5 page indicates the distance from the aircraft to which location?
• Which of the following is a primary function of the AOA computer?
• What does pressing the MEM special function switch do?
• What flight plan number is always shown as the active flight plan?
• What three elements are necessary for engine operation?
• What shape is used to label transfer switches?
• What range of Gs can the accelerometer display in the T-6?
• Both the EADI and EHSI operate in what modes?
• What indicator shows during the AOA test at the LOW position?
• Through which port does the engine supply bleed air to the heating system?
• What is the function of the audio control panel identifier select switch set to the R position?
• What are the indications of a hung start?
• How is the standby airspeed indicator operated?
• In the context of ejection seats, what is the primary purpose of the rocket motor?
• What occurs when one pilot selects EFIS composite mode in the T-6 cockpit?
• What does the TAD computer relay to the rudder trim tab actuator?
• What is the location of the utility lights in the T-6?
• After selecting the page to input an identifier directly, which button is pressed to engage the cursor?
• What is the range of the DME?
• What safety concern arises from improper use of Nosewheel Steering at high speeds?
• Which refueling method allows more fuel to be pumped into the wing tanks?
• If the RMU passes the preflight test, what will it display?
• What is the function of the flight control gust lock?
• Which is a possible cause of engine failure in flight?
• As altitude increases, which aspect of the aircraft's airspeed indicator (ASI) is affected?
• What is the maximum airspeed and altitude at which the ejection seat is usable?
• What factors affect the effectiveness of the ejection system?
• What are the buttons on the left side of the RMU referred to as?
• What does the green arc on the AOA gauge indicate?
• During a missed approach, what is indicated on the GPS screen once past the approach waypoint?
• What is NOT a function of the engine cowling?
• How long does the emergency O2 cylinder provide oxygen during ejection?
• Place the vent control lever in the ______ position to direct warm air into the windshield and canopy side defog ducts.
• Which component's failure would most likely illuminate the green TAD OFF annunciator?
• What is the function of the caging mechanism in the standby attitude indicator?
• Activating the ______ prevents engine compartment smoke and/or fumes from entering the cockpit after an engine shutdown.
• What is the main variable controlled by the TEMP CONTROL switch?
• What are the possible types of abnormal start?
• What does a false canopy mean in aviation terms?
• To change the UHF frequency digits to the right of the decimal, what must you do?
• What component does the primary hydraulic system's selector manifold contain?
• What does the anti-G system help maintain during high G maneuvers?
• How many preset channels can the UHF backup control unit store?
• Using the primary refueling method, how much usable fuel is approximately available?
• When is the propeller likely to move toward feather during engine failure?
• What does a red indication in the standby turn/bank indicator signify?
• The primary and transfer jet pumps are operated by what mechanism?
• Which of the following is a possible display indication of engine failure in flight?
• What does delta P measure on the alternate engine data display?
• Which electrical component is responsible for providing power for engine starts?
• Which information is NOT displayed by the EHSI when tuned to a navigation facility with DME capability?
• True or False: Turning the TEMP CONTROL switch toward COLD moves the heat exchanger bypass valve more open to allow more cool air into the cockpit.
• What happens when the CFS handle is operated in the rear cockpit?
• What is the estimated oxygen supply time from the emergency oxygen bottle?
• True or False: The speed break is usable with the emergency system.
• How is varying levels of thrust achieved in the propulsion system?
• Where is the parachute and chute harness assembly located in the T-6A aircraft?
• If you press the Direct To button while the active waypoint is a missed approach point and you are already past the waypoint, the ______ is the default on the Direct To page.
• What does it indicate if the M FUEL BAL annunciator is lighted?
• What is the role of the legs restraint during ejection?
• How many hooks are present on the aircraft canopy?
• The ground crew interphone is activated ______.
• Data from the fuel flow transmitter is displayed on which instrument?
• What is indicated when the BUS TIE light turns amber on the annunciator panel?
• Where are the generator bus circuit breakers located in the T-6A cockpit?
• At what altitude should the MOR handle be used if the automatic system fails?
• The engine-driven pump pressurizes the hydraulic system to which of the following pressures?
• What occurs on the primary engine data displays during abnormal engine operation?
• Which type of communication system is primarily associated with Guard receivers?
• Where are additional air conditioning outlets located in the T-6 cockpit?
• What does the VSI indicate in terms of flight performance?
• Must the pilot press the IDT button on the RMU for the transponder to reply to a Mode A interrogation signal?
• How many amps can the generator supply?
• EFIS approach mode adds which of the following elements to the standard instrument displays?
• What are the five fields displayed on the RMU display areas?
• What role does the phase shift torque probe play?
• True or False: Pressure for the anti-G system is supplied by the electrically driven pump.
• What happens to OBOGS when the BLEED AIR inflow switch is turned OFF?
• Which shutoff valve control is located in the cockpit?
• If the ejection seat ADU mode selector switch is set to AUTO, when will the SSK deploy?
• How do you know if squelch is off?
• After decluttering, when will the EADI return to normal indications of aircraft attitude?
• What occurs if the UHF radio does not receive an amplified signal?
• After takeoff, what supplies cooling air to the heat exchanger?
• What occurs alongside a rapid decay of ITT during an engine failure?
• What is the UHF Guard frequency used for?
• Which propeller position produces the least amount of drag?
• Which components provide inputs to the AOA computer in the T-6?
• What component converts vapor refrigerant to a high-pressure liquid?
• What RPM does the PMU direct the PIU to maintain for the propeller?
• What voltage does the generator supply to the generator and battery buses?
• Which GPS button is primarily used during holding and nonprecision approaches?
• What issue might cause the BOOST PUMP annunciator to cycle on and off?
• What behavior is expected from the aircraft when the green arc is displayed on the AOA gauge?
• Which devices are operated by the primary hydraulic system?
• Where is the SPEED BRAKE circuit breaker located?
• Which component regulates oil pressure to ensure proper functioning of the pitch change mechanism?
• When should the MOR handle be used?
• What information do the engine/systems displays provide?
• If the propeller pitch change mechanism loses oil pressure, where will the propeller automatically move towards?
• Circuit breakers protecting systems and equipment from the battery bus are located on which panel in each cockpit?
• What are the aileron trailing edge traveling limits?
• Detecting unusual vibrations in flight could signify what?
• Each circuit breaker is marked with what to indicate its capacity?
• What does the reduction gearbox do to the engine output?
• What is the purpose of the bobweight located on the forward control stick?
• When does the EFIS demonstrate unusual attitude information on the EADI?
• In which two specific conditions is the emergency hydraulic system used?
• What are some sensory indications of an engine fire in flight?
• When does the OBOGS TEMP light illuminate?
• What occurs if the ADU mode selector is set to AUTO?
• What are the three EFIS modes?
• When does the CKPT PX annunciator illuminate?
• True or False: All EDM functions are engine related.
• During a localizer approach, is localizer course information displayed on both the EADI and EHSI?
• The five waypoint types found in the GPS database include all of the following EXCEPT:
• What does the indication of red chevrons signify when pitch values approach their limits?
• The primary purpose of using a gust lock on an aircraft is to ______.
• What is the purpose of the OBS function in the GPS system?
• When a controller requests to "SQUAWK ident," how long does the transponder send the identification signal?
• How do you attach the SSK to the aircraft seat?
• How many total pounds does gravity refueling add to the T-6A normal capacity?
• Which indicator shows a slow approach speed?
• What action must be taken if the landing gear doors are not closed before takeoff?
• The system displays proximity traffic indicated by a filled white diamond when the intruding aircraft is within how many feet?
• How many flight plans can the GPS store, combined with how many waypoints each?
• What type of light can be relocated for different uses in the T-6?
• Which of the following is NOT a method to select a waypoint on the GPS?
• Which components provide enhanced bird strike protection in the aircraft?
• Which of the following components is NOT operated by the primary hydraulic system?
• When will the green TAD OFF annunciator illuminate?
• Does the front cockpit have the INTPH HOT/COLD switch?
• Power for all avionics and radio systems in both cockpits is furnished through which switch in the front cockpit?
• What would cause both amber and red OIL PX annunciators to illuminate?
• What are the pressurized levels for the hydraulic system and the return side of the power package reservoir?
• If the gust lock is installed properly, how will the control surfaces appear during inspection?
• Which of the following is an incorrect way to select waypoints on the GPS?
• What action should be taken to open the valve allowing a higher volume of bleed air into the heating system?
• Which T-6A environmental system is an engine-driven vapor cycle system?
• What can engaging Nosewheel Steering (NWS) at high speeds lead to?
• What does the green ST READY light indicate during T-6A startup?
• How can the generator be controlled in the T-6?
• The NAV 2 page displays which kind of information?
• What is the first step in the ejection sequence after pulling the handle?